I'd like to know the derivation of Lippmann-Schwinger equation (LSE) in operator formalism and on what assumptions it is based. I consulted the Ballentine book as advised in this Phys.SE post, but I still don't understand it. It states that if LSE holds: $$ |\psi\rangle = |\phi\rangle + G_0(E^+) V|\psi\rangle \tag$$ then $H|\psi\rangle = E|\psi\rangle$ or alternatively $$ V|\psi\rangle = (E-H_0)|\psi\rangle \tag$$ Here $H_0 |\phi\rangle = E |\phi\rangle$ and $G_0(E^+)$ signifies a limit $G_0(E+i\eta)$ as $\eta \to 0$. Now, it is easy to verify that $(1) \Rightarrow (2)$. But, as the book states, $(1)$ contains more information and I think that $(2) \nRightarrow (1)$. So how is LSE truly derived? If we consider problem $(2)$ then obviously $ |\psi\rangle = G_0(E^+) V|\psi\rangle $ is also a solution. Why do we need $|\phi\rangle$? And lastly how is $|\psi\rangle$ defined? If it is defined by $(2)$ then why does it have the same eigenvalues as $|\phi\rangle$ has for $H_0$? Why is it even true that the spectral problem $(2)$ has a solution?
Most of the time, an (elastic) scattering problem can be reduced in :
Obviously, in that case $|\phi\rangle$ is no longer an eigenstate of the full hamiltonian : $$ \hat<\mathcal
Of course what you want is to find such eigenstate that you noted $|\psi\rangle$, so that : $$ \hat<\mathcal
The particular solution $|\psi\rangle_p$ can be foud by playing a little bit with the formulas. By definition of the free (retarded) Green function $$ \hat_0(\epsilon)=\frac<\epsilon-\hat<\mathcal
As always, the general solution of a differential equation is the sum of the homogene and particular solutions : $$ |\psi\rangle=|\psi\rangle_h+|\psi\rangle_p=|\phi\rangle+\hat_0(E)\hat|\psi\rangle $$ which is the so called Lippmann Schwinger equation.